Folks, In FT18, we decided that the declarations of "??" for BIT and STD_ULOGIC be explicit declarations, not implicit declarations. I don't recall the rationale, and am not sure there is a good one. The only difference I can see between the two choices is in what would happen if a user were to declare an overload for "??" for BIT or STD_ULOGIC in a separate package, and then use that package as well as STANDARD or STD_LOGIC_1164. In that case, - with an explicit declaration of the predefined operator, neither version would be directly visible in the user's design unit - with an implicit declaration of the predefined operator, the predefined declaration would not be directly visible and the user's explicit declaration would be directly visible. Apart from "??", all predefined operators in STANDARD are implicitly declared. Making "??" explicitly declared introduces an inconsistency. Is there a good rationale to do so? Cheers, PA -- Dr. Peter J. Ashenden peter@ashenden.com.au Ashenden Designs Pty. Ltd. www.ashenden.com.au PO Box 640 Ph: +61 8 8339 7532 Stirling, SA 5152 Fax: +61 8 8339 2616 Australia Mobile: +61 414 70 9106Received on Mon Apr 4 21:42:25 2005
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